RE-NEET 2026 Chemistry Free Mock Test PDF 2 — 50 Exam Oriented MCQs with Detailed Solutions

Re-NEET 2026 Chemistry Free Mock Test-2 is an important post for students prepare for Re-NEET 2026 to be officially scheduled for June 21,2026.

Section-A (attempt all questions)

Q1. Which of the following compounds shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law?

A) Nitric acid + Water

B) Acetone + Chloroform

C) Ethanol + Water

D) Benzene + Toluene

Answer: C) Ethanol + Water

Step-by-Step Solution:

Positive deviation occurs when A–B interactions are weaker than A–A and B–B interactions.
Ethanol and water disrupt hydrogen bonding partially.
Hence vapour pressure increases.

Q2. The order of SN2 reactivity is:

A) 2° > 1° > 3°
B) 1° > 2° > 3°
C) 2° > 1° > 3°
D) 3° > 1° > 2°

Answer: B) 1° > 2° > 3°

Step-by-Step Solution:

SN2 involves backside attack.
Steric hindrance decreases reactivity.
Primary halides react fastest.

Q3. Which species acts as strongest oxidising agent?

A) Cl₂
B) Br₂
C) I₂
D) F₂

Answer: D) F₂

Step-by-Step Solution:

Fluorine has highest reduction potential.
It gains electrons most easily.
Therefore strongest oxidising agent.

Q4. In PCl₅, the axial P–Cl bonds are longer because:

A) Less repulsion
B) More repulsion from equatorial bonds
C) d-orbital participation

D) Greater bond angle

Answer: B) More repulsion from equatorial bonds

Step-by-Step Solution:

Axial bonds experience 90° interactions with equatorial bonds.
Repulsion weakens axial bonds.
Hence longer and weaker.

Q5. Which compound gives Cannizzaro reaction?

A) HCHO
B) CH₃CHO
C) CH₃COCH₃
D) C₂H₅CHO

Answer: A) HCHO

Step-by-Step Solution:

Cannizzaro reaction occurs in aldehydes without α-H.
Formaldehyde has no α-hydrogen.

Q6. Number of tetrahedral voids in FCC lattice containing 4 atoms is:

A) 6
B) 7
C) 8
D) 9

Answer: C) 8

Step-by-Step Solution:

FCC has 4 atoms/unit cell.
Tetrahedral voids = 2 × number of atoms.
= 2 × 4 = 8

Q7. Which amino acid is essential?

A) Valine
B) Alanine
C) Glycine
D) Serine

Answer: A) Valine

Step-by-Step Solution:

Essential amino acids cannot be synthesised by body.

Q8. Kolbe’s electrolysis of sodium acetate gives:

A) Propane
B) Methane
C) Ethane
D) Ethene

Answer: C) Ethane

Step-by-Step Solution:

Methyl radicals combine to form ethane.

Q9. Which complex shows linkage isomerism?

A) [Co(NO₂)(NH₃)₅]Cl₂
B) [Co(NH₃)₆]Cl₃
C) K₄[Fe(CN)₆]
D) [Ni(CO)₄]

Answer: A) [Co(NO₂)(NH₃)₅]Cl₂

Step-by-Step Solution:

NO₂⁻ is ambidentate ligand.
Can bind through N or O.

Q10. The shape of ClF₃ is:

A) Linear
B) Tetrahedral
C) T-shaped
D) Trigonal planar

Answer: C) T-shaped

Step-by-Step Solution:

5 electron pairs around Cl.
2 lone pairs occupy equatorial positions.
Molecular shape becomes T-shaped.

Q11. Hydrolysis of ester produces:

A) Alkane + Water
B) Ketone + Alcohol
C) Aldehyde + Acid
D) Acid + Alcohol

Answer: D) Acid + Alcohol

Q12. Which metal is extracted using carbon reduction?

A) Zn
B) Al
C) Na
D) Mg

Answer: A)Zn

Step-by-Step Solution:

ZnO can be reduced by carbon.

Q13. Highest oxidation state of Mn is found in:

A) MnO₂
B) MnO
C) MnCl₂
D) KMnO₄

Answer: D)KMnO₄

Step-by-Step Solution:

Oxidation state of Mn = +7

Q14. Which is strongest base?

A) AsH₃
B) PH₃
C) NH₃
D) SbH₃

Answer: C)NH₃

Step-by-Step Solution:

Basicity decreases down the group.

Q15. The catalyst used in Contact process is:

A) V₂O₅
B) Ni
C) Fe
D) Pt

Answer: A)V₂O₅

Q16. Which solution has highest boiling point?

A) 0.1 m NaCl
B) 0.1 m glucose
C) 0.1 m urea
D) 0.1 m sucrose

Answer: A)0.1 m NaCl

Step-by-Step Solution:

NaCl dissociates into ions, increasing i.

Q17. Which compound gives iodoform test?

A) Methanal
B) Methanoic acid
C) Benzene
D) Ethanol

Answer: D)Ethanol

Step-by-Step Solution:

Ethanol oxidises to acetaldehyde containing CH₃CO group.

Q18. Which colloid shows Brownian movement?

A. Colloidal solution
B. True solution only
C. Suspension only
D. None of these

Answer: A) Colloidal solution

Assertion–Reason & Numerical MCQs

Q19. Assertion: Transition elements form coloured ions.

Reason: d-d electronic transitions occur.

A) Both false
B) Both true but reason not correct explanation
C) Assertion true reason false
D) Both true and reason correct explanation

Answer: D) Both true and reason correct explanation

Step-by-Step Solution:

Partially filled d-orbitals allow d-d transitions causing colour.

Q20. The emf of Daniell cell increases when:

A) Cu²⁺ concentration increases
B) Cu²⁺ concentration decreases
C) Temperature decreases only
D) Zn²⁺ concentration increases

Answer: A) Cu²⁺ concentration increases

Step-by-Step Solution:

Increasing Cu²⁺ increases emf.

Q21. Which compound undergoes aldol condensation?

A) Acetaldehyde
B) Formaldehyde
C) Benzaldehyde
D) Benzophenone

Answer: A) Acetaldehyde

Step-by-Step Solution:

Aldol requires α-hydrogen.

Q22. Which has maximum electron gain enthalpy?

A) F
B) I
C) Br
D) Cl

Answer: D)Cl

Step-by-Step Solution:

Small size of F causes electron-electron repulsion.

Q23. Osmotic pressure for 0.1 M glucose at 300 K is:

$= CRT$

(R = 0.082 L atm mol⁻¹ K⁻¹)

A) 2.46 atm
B) 1.23 atm
C) 3.69 atm
D) 4.92 atm

Answer: A) 2.46 atm

Step-by-Step Solution:

$π = 2.46 atm$

Q24. Which among the following has maximum catenation tendency?

A) Sulphur
B) Oxygen
C) Nitrogen
D) Fluorine

Answer: A)Sulphur

Step-by-Step Solution:

Strong S–S bond and larger size favour catenation.

Q25. Which species acts as the strongest reducing agent in acidic medium?

A) Fe³⁺
B) Cr₂O₇²⁻
C) Sn²⁺
D) MnO₄⁻

Answer: C) Sn²⁺

Step-by-Step Solution:

Reducing agent donates electrons.
Sn²⁺ easily converts into Sn⁴⁺:

Hence it behaves as strongest reducing agent.

Q26. The IUPAC name of the compound

CH₂=CH–CH(OH)–CH₂–CH₂–CH₃ is:

A) 3-Hydroxyhex-1-ene
B) Hex-5-en-3-ol
C) Hex-1-en-3-ol
D) Hex-2-en-4-ol

Answer: C) Hex-1-en-3-ol

Solution:

Longest chain = 6 carbons
Priority: OH group > double bond

Numbering gives:

OH at carbon 3
Double bond at carbon 1

Hence:

Hex-1-en-3-ol

Q27. Which amine is most basic in aqueous solution?

A) (CH₃)₂NH
B) CH₃NH₂
C) NH₃
D) (CH₃)₃N

Answer: A) (CH₃)₂NH

Solution:

In aqueous medium:

because secondary amines show maximum +I effect and good solvation.

Q28. Which colloidal phenomenon causes scattering of light?

A) Tyndall effect
B) Coagulation
C) Electrophoresis
D) Dialysis

Answer: A) Tyndall effect

Solution:

Scattering of light by colloidal particles is called Tyndall effect.

Q29. Which vitamin deficiency causes night blindness?

A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin C
C) Vitamin D
D) Vitamin B₁₂

Answer: A) Vitamin A

Solution:

Vitamin A maintains retina function.
Deficiency → night blindness.

Q30. Which polymer is thermosetting?

A) Bakelite
B) PVC
C) Nylon-6,6
D) Polythene

Answer: A) Bakelite

Solution:

Bakelite forms cross-linked network and cannot be remoulded.

Q31. The hybridization of Ni in Ni(CO)₄ is:

A) sp²
B) dsp²
C) d²sp³
D) sp³

Answer: D) sp³

Solution:

Ni atomic number = 28

Ni in Ni(CO)₄ becomes:

Uses sp³ hybridization → tetrahedral structure.

Q32. Which pair shows linkage isomerism?

A) [Cu(NH₃)₄]SO₄
B) [Co(NH₃)₆]Cl₃
C) [Co(NO₂)(NH₃)₅]Cl₂
D) K₄[Fe(CN)₆]

Answer: C) [Co(NO₂)(NH₃)₅]Cl₂

Solution:

NO₂⁻ is ambidentate ligand:

nitro (N-bonded)
nitrito (O-bonded)

Hence linkage isomerism possible.

Q33. Which compound gives tribromoaniline with bromine water?

A) Aniline
B) Nitrobenzene
C) Benzene
D) Toluene

Answer: A)Aniline

Solution:

Aniline strongly activates benzene ring.

Reaction:

Q34. The correct order of acidic strength is:

A) Ethanol > p-nitrophenol > Phenol
B) Ethanol > Phenol > p-nitrophenol
C) Phenol > Ethanol > p-nitrophenol
D) p-nitrophenol > Phenol > Ethanol

Answer: D)p-nitrophenol > Phenol > Ethanol

Solution:

NO₂ group withdraws electrons and stabilizes phenoxide ion.

Thus acidity increases.

Q35. Which metal refining method uses volatile compounds?

A) Vapour phase refining
B) Electrolytic refining
C) Zone refining
D) Liquation

Answer: A) Vapour phase refining

Solution:

Metal forms volatile compound then decomposes to pure metal.

Example:

Section-B (attemp any 10 questions)

Q36. Which electrolyte is used in lead storage battery?

A) HNO₃
B) H₂SO₄
C) HCl
D) NaOH

Answer: B) H₂SO₄

Solution:

Lead-acid battery contains sulphuric acid electrolyte.

Q37. Which crystal structure is shown by silver?

A) HCP
B) BCC
C) FCC
D) Simple cubic

Answer: B) FCC

Q38. Which reagent converts amide into amine?

A) PCC
B) KMnO₄
C) LiAlH₄
D) HNO₃

Answer: C) LiAlH₄

Solution:

LiAlH₄ reduces:

Q39. The shape of [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ is:

A) Octahedral
B) Square planar
C) Tetrahedral
D) Linear

Answer: A) Octahedral

Q40. Which gas law explains dissolution of nitrogen in water?

A) Charles law
B) Henry’s law
C) Boyle’s law
D) Avogadro law

Answer: B)Henry’s law

Q41. Which species shows maximum crystal field stabilization?

A) d³
B) d⁵ high spin
C) d⁰
D) d¹⁰

Answer: A) d³

Solution:

d³ configuration has high CFSE in octahedral field.

Q42. In semiconductor doping, addition of phosphorus to silicon produces:

A) n-type semiconductor

B) p-type semiconductor
C) intrinsic semiconductor
D) insulator

Answer: A) n-type semiconductor

Step-by-Step Solution:

Silicon has 4 valence electrons.
Phosphorus has 5 valence electrons.
One extra free electron is contributed after bonding.
Therefore conductivity increases due to electrons.

Q43. Graphite is used in extraction of aluminium because:

A) It absorbs impurities
B) It acts as reducing agent
C) It acts as catalyst
D) It acts as electrode due to conductivity

Answer: D) It acts as electrode due to conductivity

Solution:

Graphite:

conducts electricity,
withstands high temperature,
acts as anode in electrolysis.

Hence used in Hall-Héroult process.

Q44. Which compound is least stable?

A) PCl
B) PCl₃
C) PCl₄
D) PCl₅

Answer: C) PCl₄

Solution:

Phosphorus generally shows oxidation states:

+3 → PCl₃
+5 → PCl₅

PCl₄ is unstable because phosphorus cannot maintain +4 oxidation state effectively.

Q45. IUPAC name of CH₂=C(CH₃)CH₂Br is:

A) 3-bromo-2-methylprop-1-ene
B) 1-bromo-2-methylprop-1-ene
C) 1-bromo-2-methylbutene
D) 2-bromobut-2-ene

Answer: A) 3-bromo-2-methylprop-1-ene

Solution:

Longest chain = 3 carbons
Double bond gets priority numbering.

Structure numbering:
CH₂=C(CH₃)-CH₂Br

Hence:

methyl at C-2
bromo at C-3

Q46. Reactivity towards nucleophilic addition follows:

A) Propanal > Ethanal > Ketones
B) Butanone > Propanone > Propanal
C) Ethanal > Propanal > Propanone > Butanone
D) Propanone > Ethanal > Butanone

Answer: C) Ethanal > Propanal > Propanone > Butanone

Solution:

Aldehydes are more reactive than ketones because:

less steric hindrance,
less +I effect.

Among aldehydes:
Ethanal > Propanal

Among ketones:
Propanone > Butanone

Q47. Basic strength in aqueous medium decreases as:

A) CH₃NH₂ > (CH₃)₃N > NH₃
B) (CH₃)₃N > CH₃NH₂ > NH₃
C) NH₃ > CH₃NH₂ > (CH₃)₃N
D) NH₃ > (CH₃)₃N > CH₃NH₂

Answer: A) CH₃NH₂ > (CH₃)₃N > NH₃

Solution:

In aqueous solution:

Solvation effect matters.
Primary amines are best solvated.

Hence:
Primary > Tertiary > Ammonia

Q48. Van’t Hoff factor represents:

A) Vapour pressure
B) Degree of ionisation/association
C) Boiling point
D) Density of solution

Correct Answer: B) Degree of ionisation/association

Solution:

Van’t Hoff factor:

It measures abnormal colligative behaviour.

Q49. Unit of first order rate constant is:

A) mol⁻² L² s⁻¹
B) mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹
C) L mol⁻¹ s⁻¹
D) s⁻¹

Answer: D) s⁻¹

Solution:

For first order:

Thus:
k = rate/concentration = s⁻¹

Q50. Coagulation of colloids occurs due to:

A) Increase in charge
B) Increase in Brownian motion
C) Neutralisation of charge
D) Filtration

Answer: C) Neutralisation of charge

Solution:

Electrolytes neutralize colloidal charge causing particles to aggregate.

FAQs

Q1. Are these RE-NEET 2026 Chemistry MCQs based on NCERT?

Yes, all questions are created using NCERT concepts and uploaded chemistry material.

Q2. Are these Re-NEET 2026 Chemistry Free Mock Test-2 questions suitable for high score preparation?

Yes, these MCQs are designed at moderate to high NEET level.

Q3. Which chapters are most important for RE-NEET Chemistry?

All chapters are important for the Re-NEET chemistry exam, as per the NEET syllabus provided by the NTA.

Q4. Are this Re-NEET 2026 Chemistry Free Mock Test-2 provides step-by-step solutions of question provided there in?

Yes, every MCQ provides detailed explanations and conceptual clarity where needed.