RE-NEET 2026 Chemistry Mock Test Papers Practice Strategy

Introduction: Re-NEET 2026 Chemistry Free Mock Test-1 : Download Free with Detailed Solutions PDF. These are closer to the actual NEET exam in terms of difficulty level, so it provides students a good platform for practice for the NEET exam.

Section-A (attempt all questions)

Q1. The molar conductivity of a 1.5 M electrolyte solution is 138.9 S cm² mol⁻¹. The conductivity of the solution is:

A) 0.1389 S cm⁻¹
B) 0.208 S cm⁻¹
C) 0.312 S cm⁻¹
D) 1.389 S cm⁻¹

Answer: B

Step-by-Step Solution

Relation:

Λm=1000κ/C​

Given:

• Λₘ = 138.9 S cm² mol⁻¹
• C = 1.5 M

κ=Λm×C/1000 =138.9×1.5/1000=0.208 S cm−1

Q2. A reaction is second order with respect to reactant A. If concentration becomes half, rate becomes:

A) One-fourth
B) Half
C) Double
D) Four times

Answer: A

Solution

For second order reaction:

Rate ∝ [A]²

If concentration becomes half:

New rate=(1/2)² =1/4​

Q3. Copper crystallizes in FCC lattice. Number of atoms per unit cell is:

A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 6

Answer: C

Solution

FCC unit cell contains:

• 8 corner atoms → contribution = 8 × 1/8 = 1
• 6 face-centered atoms → contribution = 6 × 1/2 = 3

Total:

1+3=4

Q4. For reaction:

$$\rightleftharpoons 2NO(g)$$

If equilibrium constant is very small, then:

A) Products predominate
B) Reactants predominate
C) Both equal
D) Reaction becomes irreversible

Answer: B

Solution

Small value of equilibrium constant means:

Kc<<1

Hence equilibrium lies toward reactants.

Q5. Depression in freezing point depends upon:

A) Nature of solute
B) Nature of solvent only
C) Number of solute particles
D) Temperature only

Answer: C

Solution

Freezing point depression is colligative property.

ΔTf ∝ number of solute particles

Q6. Which semiconductor is formed by doping silicon with phosphorus?

A) p-type
B) n-type
C) Intrinsic
D) Neutral

Answer: B

Solution

Phosphorus has 5 valence electrons.

Extra electron becomes free electron.

Hence n-type semiconductor forms.

Q7. Resistivity is reciprocal of:

A) Resistance
B) Conductance
C) Conductivity
D) Molar conductivity

Answer: C

Solution

Relation:

ρ=1/κ​

Where:

• ρ = resistivity
• κ = conductivity

Q8. Which electrolyte shows maximum molar conductivity at infinite dilution?

A) Weak electrolyte
B) Strong electrolyte
C) Non-electrolyte
D) Colloid

Answer: B

Solution

Strong electrolytes dissociate completely at infinite dilution.

Hence maximum conductivity.

Q9. NF₃ is stable while NCl₃ is explosive because:

A) F is larger atom
B) N–F bond is stronger than N–Cl bond
C) Chlorine is more electronegative
D) Nitrogen has lone pair

Answer: B

Solution

N–F bond has high bond enthalpy.

N–Cl bond is weaker and unstable.

Hence NCl₃ becomes explosive.

Q10. Geometry of XeOF₄ is:

A) Tetrahedral
B) Square pyramidal
C) Octahedral
D) Trigonal bipyramidal

Answer: B

Solution

Xe has:

• 5 bond pairs
• 1 lone pair

Steric number = 6 → octahedral arrangement.

One lone pair gives square pyramidal shape.

Q11. Sulphur shows greater catenation than oxygen because sulphur:

A) Is more electronegative
B) Has stronger S–S bond
C) Is smaller in size
D) Has lower valency

Answer: B

Solution

S–S bond is stronger and stable compared to O–O bond.

Therefore sulphur forms long chains.

Q12. Which halogen is strongest oxidising agent?

A) Cl₂
B) Br₂
C) I₂
D) F₂

Answer: D

Solution

Fluorine has highest reduction potential.

Hence strongest oxidising agent.

Q13. Copper is extracted from low-grade ores by:

A) Zone refining
B) Froth flotation
C) Leaching
D) Electrolysis

Answer: C

Solution

Low-grade copper ores are concentrated by leaching process.

Q14. In SF₄, the hybridization of sulphur is:

A) sp²
B) sp³
C) sp³d
D) sp³d²

Answer: C

Solution

Total electron pairs around sulphur = 5

Hence: sp³d

Q15. Which ion gives yellow precipitate with AgNO₃?

A) Cl⁻
B) Br⁻
C) I⁻
D) F⁻

Answer: C

Solution

Silver iodide is yellow precipitate.

Ag⁺ + I⁻ → AgI

Q16. Product formed when glucose is oxidised with nitric acid is:

A) Gluconic acid
B) Saccharic acid
C) Sorbitol
D) Fructose

Answer: B

Solution

Nitric acid oxidizes both:

• aldehyde group
• primary alcohol group

Hence saccharic acid forms.

Q17. Carbylamine reaction is given by:

A. Primary amines
B. Secondary amines
C. Tertiary amines
D. Amides

Answer: A

Solution

Only primary amines form foul-smelling isocyanides.

Q18. Cannizzaro reaction is shown by aldehydes lacking:

A) Carbonyl group
B) α-hydrogen
C) Oxygen atom
D) Aromatic ring

Answer: B

Solution

Cannizzaro reaction occurs in aldehydes without α-hydrogen.

Example: Benzaldehyde

Q19. Benzaldehyde reduces Tollens’ reagent because it contains:

A) Ketone group
B) Aldehyde group
C) Alcohol group
D) Ether linkage

Answer: B

Solution

Aldehydes reduce Tollens’ reagent giving silver mirror.

Q20. Propanone reacts with HCN to form:

A) Cyanohydrin
B) Oxime
C) Hydrazone
D) Alcohol

Answer: A

Solution

HCN adds across carbonyl group.

Product formed = cyanohydrin.

Q21. Butan-1-ol on oxidation gives:

A) Butanal
B) Butanoic acid
C) Butene
D) Butanone

Answer: B

Solution

Primary alcohol on strong oxidation gives carboxylic acid.

CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂OH→CH₃CH₂CH₂COOH

Q22. Ortho-nitrophenol is more acidic than ortho-methoxyphenol due to:

A) +I effect
B) –I effect
C) Hyperconjugation
D) Resonance donation

Answer: B

Solution

Nitro group withdraws electrons strongly by –I effect.

Hence phenoxide ion becomes more stable.

Q23. Which compound undergoes Cannizzaro reaction?

A) CH₃CHO
B) C₂H₅CHO
C) HCHO
D) CH₃COCH₃

Answer: C

Solution

Formaldehyde has no α-hydrogen.

Hence Cannizzaro reaction occurs.

Q24. Which compound gives iodoform test?

A) Methanal
B) Benzaldehyde
C) Acetone
D) Formic acid

Answer: C

Solution

Compounds containing:

CH3CO−

group give iodoform test.

Acetone contains methyl ketone group.

Q25. The strongest acid among the following is:

A) Benzoic acid
B) 4-Methoxy benzoic acid
C) 3,4-Dinitro benzoic acid
D) Acetic acid

Answer: C

Solution

Nitro groups strongly withdraw electrons.

They stabilize carboxylate ion.

Therefore acidity increases greatly.

1. Practice NCERT line-by-line.
2. Focus on Assertion-Reason questions.
3. Revise named reactions daily.
4. Solve previous year NEET questions repeatedly.
5. Attempt full syllabus mock tests weekly.
6. Concept-based Organic Chemistry questions
7. Always remember: 45 questions, 45 minutes,180 marks.

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